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DNB ENT Previous Year Questions

These are the DNB ENT (Otorhinolaryngology (ENT)) theory questions asked by NBEMS in the December 2025 and June 2025 exams, listed paper by paper as they appeared. The Prep DNB app has all 23 DNB sessions from June 2014 to December 2025 plus 6 DipNB papers — 1,091 questions in total — with repeat-question tracking, examiner keywords and MCQs.

Jump to: December 2025 · June 2025 · Important topics · Older papers

DNB ENT December 2025 Question Paper

Paper 1

  1. a) Draw a labelled diagram depicting the various branches that arise from the intra-temporal part of facial nerve. [5] b) What are the various electrodiagnostic tests and their significance in assessment of prognosis in a case of facial palsy? [5]
  2. a) Briefly discuss the clinical features of a patient with cerebellar abscess. [5] b) How do you manage a patient of otogenic cerebellar abscess? [5]
  3. a) How do you clinically examine for spontaneous nystagmus in an OPD setting? [2] b) How do you differentiate between central and peripheral nystagmus? [5] c) What are the grades of nystagmus? [3]
  4. a) Define otosclerosis. [1] b) Briefly discuss the clinical features and audiological evaluation of a patient of otosclerosis. [3] c) Enumerate the methods available for fenestration of stapes footplate & state advantages of LASER for doing the same. [2] d) Briefly enumerate the various complications of stapedectomy. [4]
  5. a) Briefly discuss the various impedance audiometry curves and their clinical significance. [5] b) What is Stenger's principle? [2] c) Briefly discuss the clinical and audiological tests to establish malingering. [3]
  6. a) Differentiate between case control and cohort study. [4] b) Briefly describe odds ratio and relative risk. [4] c) Write about impact factor and its relevance. [2]
  7. a) Briefly describe the composition of endolymph and perilymph. [2] b) Enumerate the various etiological factors for primary endolymphatic hydrops. [3] c) Briefly discuss the various surgical modalities for managing Meniere's disease. [5]
  8. a) Explain acoustic reflex pathway with the help of a schematic diagram. [4] b) Briefly discuss the principle and application of acoustic reflex decay test. [3] c) Enumerate the diagnostic applications of acoustic reflex. [3]
  9. a) Briefly discuss the limitations and fallacies of pure tone audiometry. [6] b) Discuss the various pathways of bone conduction. [4]
  10. a) Define otitic barotrauma. [1] b) Enumerate the differences between inner ear barotrauma and inner ear decompression illness. [4] c) Briefly describe the management of barotrauma induced perilymphatic fistula. [5]

Paper 2

  1. a) Enumerate the aetiological factors for nasal septal perforation. [3] b) Briefly discuss the clinical features of patients with septal perforation. [2] c) Discuss the various management options for this condition. [5]
  2. a) Define Haller cell and Onodi cell and write about their clinical relevance. [3] b) Briefly discuss the attachments of uncinate process. [3] c) Discuss in detail about the ligation techniques for management of epistaxis. [4]
  3. a) Enumerate the various causes for CSF rhinorrhoea. [3] b) What investigations would you advise to establish the presence and site of CSF leak in a suspected patient? [4] c) What are the various surgical approaches for its management? [3]
  4. a) Draw a labelled diagram showing parts of the nasal septum along with the blood supply of nasal septum. [2+2] b) Classify nasal fractures along with their clinical features. [3] c) Enumerate Le Fort classification of mid-facial fractures. [3]
  5. a) Draw a labelled diagram showing neurovascular relations of sphenoid sinus. [4] b) Briefly discuss the various pneumatization patterns of sphenoid sinus. [4] c) Enumerate the boundaries of frontal recess. [2]
  6. a) Enumerate the extrinsic muscles of tongue along with their actions. [4] b) Write the TNM classification for carcinoma tongue. [3] c) Enumerate the risk factors for oral carcinomas. [3]
  7. a) What is atrophic rhinitis? [1] b) What are the clinical features of patients with atrophic rhinitis? [5] c) Enumerate the treatment modalities for managing this condition. [4]
  8. a) Diagrammatically depict the nasofrontal and nasolabial angles along with their normal range. [3] b) Enumerate the various incisions used in rhinoplasty. [3] c) Enumerate the treatment options for patients with nasal valve collapse. [4]
  9. a) Enumerate the clinical features and various classifications for carcinoma maxilla. [7] b) Outline the management protocol in such a case. [3]
  10. a) Enumerate the various theories for salivary gland neoplasms. [3] b) Enumerate the TNM classification of parotid gland carcinomas. [4] c) What are the risk factors for salivary gland carcinomas? [3]

Paper 3

  1. a) Enumerate the muscles responsible for velopharyngeal competence. [3] b) What are the contraindications and complications of adenoidectomy? [3+4]
  2. a) Enumerate the differences between acute laryngotracheobronchitis and acute supraglottitis. [5] b) What are the various examination findings on laryngoscopy in a patient with TB laryngitis? [5]
  3. a) Draw a labelled diagram depicting the intrinsic membranes of the larynx. [4] b) Briefly discuss the potential spaces of larynx. [6]
  4. a) Enumerate various causes of neonatal stridor. [4] b) How do you calculate the size of tracheostomy tube to be used in a pediatric patient? [2] c) Enumerate the surgical procedures for paediatric subglottic stenosis. [4]
  5. a) Briefly discuss the various phases of deglutition. [3] b) Enumerate the oesophageal causes of dysphagia. [3] c) Briefly discuss the various investigation modalities that are used in management of dysphagia. [4]
  6. a) Diagrammatically represent the boundaries of Beahr's and Jolls triangles. [4+4] b) What are Semon's law and Wagner's and Gro's man theory? [1+1]
  7. a) What is the position of the patient for performing rigid bronchoscopy? [1] b) Enumerate the indications, contraindications, technique and complications of this procedure. [2+2+3+2]
  8. a) Briefly discuss the principle of narrow band imaging and its clinical application. [4] b) What are vocal registers? [3] c) Enumerate the parameters measured on video laryngostroboscopy. [3]
  9. a) Briefly discuss the regulation of thyroid hormones in the body. [4] b) Enumerate the physiological actions of parathormone and calcitonin. [4+2]
  10. a) What are the various types of conservation laryngectomies? [3] b) Discuss vocal rehabilitation procedures after total laryngectomy. [5] c) Discuss trans-oral robotic surgery. [2]

Paper 4

  1. a) How does radiotherapy act? [3] b) Discuss the dose delivery methods (normal and various modifications to increase its effectiveness and decrease its toxicity). [4] c) Briefly discuss the clinical features of radiation toxicity. [3]
  2. a) What is gene mapping? [1] b) Enumerate the various strategies employed for gene mapping. [3] c) Enumerate the viral vectors used for gene therapy. [2] d) What are the various approaches used in gene therapy? [4]
  3. a) Enumerate the basic principles of gamma knife stereotactic radiosurgery. [4] b) Mention the various steps involved in treating a patient with this technique. [4] c) What are the limitations of this modality? [2]
  4. a) Enumerate the differential diagnosis of a midline neck swelling. [4] b) Briefly discuss the clinical presentation of a patient with thyroglossal cyst. [2] c) Differences between ectopic and aberrant thyroid. [4]
  5. a) What are the sites for putative biopsies in a case of an unknown primary with neck secondaries? [2] b) Describe the various levels of lymph nodes in neck. [4] c) Discuss the various types of neck lymph node dissections. [4]
  6. a) Classify chemotherapeutic agents according to their mechanism of action. [6] b) What are the various chemotherapy strategies used in head and neck malignancies? [4]
  7. a) Briefly discuss the principles of PET (positron emission tomography)'. [3] b) What is SUV in relation to PET? [2] c) Enumerate the oncological indications of PET-CT in head and neck. [5]
  8. a) What is the mechanism of action of lignocaine? [2] b) What is the maximum safe dose of lignocaine infiltration? [2] c) Enumerate the adverse drug reactions associated with its usage. [3] d) What is Plester's technique of local anesthesia for ear surgeries? [3]
  9. a) Enumerate the cytological features of dysplasia. [3] b) What are the grades of dysplasia? [3] c) Briefly discuss the management of carcinoma in situ of glottis. [4]
  10. a) What are the various reconstruction options following floor of mouth resection surgeries? [6] b) Enumerate the blood supply and uses of nasolabial flap. [4]

DNB ENT June 2025 Question Paper

Paper 1

  1. a) What are cochlear microphonics? [2] b) Discuss the role of otoacoustic emissions in neonatal hearing screening. [3] c) What is high risk neonatal hearing screening and universal neonatal hearing screening and why the later is needed to be included in NPPCD? [5]
  2. a) Enumerate the various indications for intra-operative facial nerve monitoring. [3] b) Discuss the anaesthesia modifications required during intraoperative facial nerve monitoring. [3] c) How will you manage a case of surgical trauma to the facial nerve with loss of signal on facial nerve monitor intraoperatively? [4]
  3. a) Keratosis obturans presenting with facial nerve palsy. [4] b) Recurrent preauricular sinus infection after surgery. [3] c) Tympanosclerosis of the middle ear. [3]
  4. a) Describe the terms neural plasticity and neural scavenging. [2] b) Discuss the diagnosis and management of a case of auditory neuropathy. [2+6]
  5. Enumerate the various hidden areas of middle ear cleft where there is high chances of residual cholesteatoma. What advantage does canal wall down mastoidectomy offer in removal of disease from hidden areas? Discuss the management of sinus tympani cholesteatoma which is going beyond the vertical part of the facial nerve. [3+3+4]
  6. a) Describe the auditory effects of noise pollution. [4] b) Discuss the Hearing conservation program for occupational noise-induced hearing loss. [4] c) What is 60 percent rule? [2]
  7. a) Describe the difference between Meniere's disease and Menieres syndrome. [3] b) Discuss the aetiopathogensis of Meniere's disease. [3] c) Discuss the role of intratympanic drug therapy for the treatment of Meniere's disease. [4]
  8. a) Superior semicircular canal dehiscence syndrome. [5] b) Tuberculosis of temporal bone. [5]
  9. a) Describe the surgical anatomy of petrous apex with suitable diagram. [3] b) Discuss the clinical features of petrous apex cholesteatoma and the various surgical approaches to remove it. [3+4]
  10. a) What do you understand by overall survival rate and how it is calculated? [3] b) Describe case control study with a suitable example. [3] c) What is the difference between Incidence and prevalence of a disease? [4]

Paper 2

  1. a) Clinical features of type 2 disease in a patient of chronic rhinosinusitis. [3] b) Indications for surgical treatment in type 2 disease. [3] c) Describe the various biologicals and enumerate various indications of their use in a patient of chronic rhinosinusitis. [2+2]
  2. a) Surgical steps of endoscopic sphenopalatine artery ligation. [5] b) Clinical features, diagnosis and management of juvenile recurrent parotitis. [5]
  3. a) Discuss the various open surgical approaches for frontal sinus disease. [4] b) What is hybrid FESS? [2] c) Indications of frontal balloon sinuplasty. [4]
  4. a) Indications of endoscopic dacryocystorhinostomy [DCR]'. [2] b) Advantages of endoscopic DCR over external DCR. [3] c) Complications of endoscopic DCR. [3] d) What is lacrimal sump syndrome and how it is avoided? [2]
  5. Discuss the etiology of Benign intracranial hypertension (BIH) presenting as cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) rhinorrhea. What are the radiological features seen in this condition? Discuss the clinical features, diagnosis and management of a patient of CSF rhinorrhea with BIH. [2+2+6]
  6. a) Classify various types of neck dissection as per levels of the neck nodes. [3] b) Management of N0 neck in oral cavity cancer. [3] c) Diagnosis and management of chyle leak post operatively. [4]
  7. Describe the clinical features, diagnosis and management of a Shamblin type 3 carotid body tumor. [3+3+4]
  8. a) Submandibular duct sialolithiasis. [5] b) Pleomorphic adenoma of deep lobe of parotid. [5]
  9. a) Sternbergs canal. [5] b) Internal nasal valve. [5]
  10. A 55-year-old female with uncontrolled long standing diabetes presented with black to brown colored nasal discharge, right eye ptosis, decreased vision for last 3 days. On anterior rhinoscopy, a black middle turbinate was seen with crusts and discharge. Discuss the differential diagnosis, investigations and management of the above case. [2+3+5]

Paper 3

  1. a) Describe FEES. [3] b) What are the advantages and disadvantages of FEES over video-flouroscopy? [4] c) Discuss the Mendelsohn maneuver for management of swallowing disorders. [3]
  2. a) Discuss the criteria for diagnosis of a subglottic stenosis in a term and preterm neonate. [3] b) Describe the Cotton Myerssclassification and management of type 4 subglottic stenosis. [4+3]
  3. How is laryngopharyngeal reflux [LPR] different from gastroesophageal reflux disease [GERD]'? Describe the various clinical feature of LPR and its diagnosis and management. [2+(2+3+3)]
  4. a) Management of laryngomalacia in a child with failure to thrive. [5] b) Spreader graft in rhinoplasty. [5]
  5. a) Describe the Hiranos body cover theory of phonation. [3] b) Describe the various benign lesions of the vocal fold. [3] c) Discuss the management of vocal nodules. [4]
  6. Enumerate various causes of bilateral vocal fold paralysis. Discuss the clinical features, diagnosis and management of bilateral vocal fold paralysis. [2+(2+3+3)]
  7. a) Clinical features, diagnosis and management of type 1 laryngeal cleft. [5] b) First aid and management of disc battery ingestion in oesophagous. [5]
  8. Describe the aetiopathogensis of oral submucous fibrosis. Discuss the medical and surgical management of oral submucous fibrosis. [3+(3+4)]
  9. a) Discuss the pattern of spread of glottic laryngeal cancer. [3] b) Describe the management of T3 glottic cancer as per the latest guidelines. [3] c) Discuss the role of salvage laryngectomy in management of such a lesion. [4]
  10. a) Describe the various types of prosthesis available for post laryngectomy voice rehabilitation. [2] b) How is a hypertonic pharyngoesophageal (PE) segment diagnosed and managed? [2+2] c) Discuss the various causes and management of central leak and peripheral leak from the voice prosthesis. [2+2]

Paper 4

  1. a) Factors affecting wound healing and ways to improve it. [5] b) Surgical cricothyrotomy. [5]
  2. Enumerate various nuclear medicine scan used in diagnosis and management of various head and neck diseases. Discuss the scan used for diagnosis of paraganglioma and parathyroid adenoma. [4+3+3]
  3. Define hemorrhagic shock. Discuss the classification of hemorrhagic shock and its management. Describe the contents of packed red cells and fresh frozen plasma and their indications. [3+3+2+2]
  4. a) Cystic hygroma involving neck, chest and mediastinum. [5] b) Role of CBNAAT in diagnosis of extrapulmonary tuberculosis of head and neck. [5]
  5. a) Describe the aetiopathogenesis of various branchial anomalies. [4] b) Briefly describe the clinical features and management of type 1 branchial cleft anomaly. [3+3]
  6. a) Thyroid ophthalmoplegia and its management. [5] b) Role of central neck dissection in differentiated thyroid cancers. [5]
  7. a) What are the principles of stereotactic radiation? [3] b) Briefly describe the role of stereotactic radiation for management of vestibular schwannoma. [4] c) What are the complications of stereotactic surgery? [3]
  8. a) What is a vibrant sound bridge and how is it different from bone anchored hearing aid? [2+2] b) Discuss the indications and surgical procedure of vibrant sound bridge. [3+3]
  9. a) Describe the Milan system for reporting salivary gland cytopathology. [5] b) Describe the various surgical landmarks for identification of facial nerve during parotid surgery. [5]
  10. Enumerate various genes responsible for congenital hearing loss. Briefly discuss the role of gene therapy in such conditions. [4+6]

High-Yield DNB ENT Topics

A selection of 18 of the 48 important topics curated in the app from repeated DNB ENT questions.

Otology — highest yield

  • Cholesteatoma: theories, acquired vs congenital, hidden areas (sinus tympani), management
  • CSOM: safe vs unsafe, complications (lateral sinus thrombosis, facial palsy, labyrinthine fistula, abscesses)
  • Mastoidectomy: canal wall up vs down, cavity problems, combined approach tympanoplasty

Rhinology and skull base

  • FESS: indications, complications (orbital haematoma, CSF leak, anterior ethmoidal artery injury)
  • Chronic rhinosinusitis: Lund-Mackay score, type 2 inflammation, biologics, surgical indications
  • Allergic rhinitis: diagnosis, SCIT vs SLIT, medical and surgical management

Head and neck oncology

  • Oral cavity cancer: TNM (AJCC 8th), management of tongue/buccal carcinoma, N0 neck
  • Neck dissection: levels I–V, RND vs MRND vs SND, chyle leak management
  • Laryngeal carcinoma: conservation surgery (vertical partial, supracricoid), ELS cordectomy, T3/T4 management

Laryngology and swallowing

  • Subglottic stenosis: Cotton-Myer grading, endoscopic vs open management
  • Laryngomalacia, croup, JRRP, foreign body airway
  • Swallowing: FEES vs VFSS, cricopharyngeal dysphagia, Zenker's diverticulum

Paediatric ENT and neck masses

  • Branchial cyst/fistula and thyroglossal duct cyst: embryology, management
  • Cystic hygroma, retropharyngeal abscess, orbital complications of sinusitis
  • Button/disc battery ingestion: emergency management

Applied, radiotherapy, and research

  • Free flaps in H&N reconstruction: radial forearm, fibula, ALT
  • Radiotherapy in H&N: IMRT, proton beam, stereotactic radiosurgery for vestibular schwannoma
  • Immunotherapy and targeted therapy in head and neck cancer

Older DNB ENT Question Papers & DipNB Papers

The remaining 27 papers are available in the Prep DNB app, organized paper-wise with repeat-question tracking.

Get all 29 papers in the app

Previous Year Questions for Other DNB Subjects